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Why did the KJV have Easter in Acts 12:4

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Why did the KJV have Easter in Acts 12:4 and now has Passover in Acts 12:4 in the NKJV?

Easter is the correct translation as the Passover was had already come and gone.

Acts 12:3 KJV  And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

 

The days of unleavened bread came after the passover. Herod was waiting for the pagan holy days, Easter, to end also as he did not want to interfer with them.

Reference:

Isn't "Easter" a Mistranslation of "Pascha" and Should It Be Translated As "Passover"?